ray harris Says: June 19th, 2007 at 12:55 am Hi Goethean, I don’t mean to suggest it is B&W at all. Re the Aryan invasion. The reason that it is thought that the Aryans migrated was because of their influence outside India, notably Iran. If the Aryans were indigenous to India then how to explain Iran and the linguistic links to European languages, as well as the existance of Dravidian languages in the south of India?
goethean Says: June 19th, 2007 at 7:15 am Some Hindutva ’scholars’ claim that India is the original IE homeland (the “Out of India” theory), but that is a bit wacko. Feuerstein etc. believe that a migration to India occured before the Indus Valley Civilization. “the Aryans could just as well have been native to India for several millennia, deriving their Sanskritic language from earlier Indo-European dialects.” I contributed to the following article:
ray harris Says: June 20th, 2007 at 12:46 am I think the key is ‘hindutva’, precisely the type of revisionism I’m concerned about. But yeah - the issue isn’t settled by any means, except to say that the invasion theory seems to have collapsed. Also, much of this hinges on how old Vedic civilization is. When was the Mahabharata set?
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